- #1
Raman Choudhary
- 21
- 0
What is the intuitive logic behind setting up the definition of reparametrization as being a bijective map and all that(the inverse map being smooth) and not alone that the reparametrisation must give us the same image curve.e.g if we see (t,t^2) as being describing the same curve as (t^3,t^6) but bijective map definition restricts(t^3,t^6) as being the reparametrisation even though physically it(t^3,t^6) describes that same curve??