- #1
attardnat
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Can anyone please help me with this because I'm really getting confused. Thanks!
In R, we know that fine topology is equivalent to the Euclidean topology as convex functions are continuous.
Now if instead of R we consider a subset of it say [0,1], the fine topology induced on [0,1] would it be equivalent to the Euclidean topology induced on [0,1] ?
Thanks once again
In R, we know that fine topology is equivalent to the Euclidean topology as convex functions are continuous.
Now if instead of R we consider a subset of it say [0,1], the fine topology induced on [0,1] would it be equivalent to the Euclidean topology induced on [0,1] ?
Thanks once again