- #1
KarateMan
- 13
- 0
Hi everyone.
I am now learning the perturbation theory in QM.
and I have encountered something that puzzles me.
from
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perturbation_theory_(quantum_mechanics )
says,
"...Since the overall phase is not determined in quantum mechanics, without loss of generality, we may assume <n(0)|n> is purely real. Therefore, <n(0)|n(1)>=-<n(1)|n(0)>, and we deduce..."
What do you mean by "the overall phase is not determined in quantum mechanics" ?
I especially emphasize "in quantum mechanics". Does this mean that we cannot find a specific value for the phase by quantum calculation?
I appreciate your help!
I am now learning the perturbation theory in QM.
and I have encountered something that puzzles me.
from
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perturbation_theory_(quantum_mechanics )
says,
"...Since the overall phase is not determined in quantum mechanics, without loss of generality, we may assume <n(0)|n> is purely real. Therefore, <n(0)|n(1)>=-<n(1)|n(0)>, and we deduce..."
What do you mean by "the overall phase is not determined in quantum mechanics" ?
I especially emphasize "in quantum mechanics". Does this mean that we cannot find a specific value for the phase by quantum calculation?
I appreciate your help!
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