Trouble with K-Map Minimizing Function: Who is Correct?

  • Thread starter momentum
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In summary: Yes, you are right, and that has been the point all along. $$\begin{align}&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D+ && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\bar CD\bar E\nonumber\\=&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D+\bar B \bar C \bar D \bar E + && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\bar CD\bar E\nonumber\\=&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D + && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\
  • #1
momentum
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Here is the minimize the function using K-Map given in my book
nzDkd5R.png
I have marked in red . Is that correct in book ? It seems wrong to me.Here is my solution.

R7m7vYh.png


Who is correct ?

thanks
 
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  • #2
Your result is equivalent to the solution in the book since ##\bar B \bar C D\bar E + \bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E = \bar B \bar C \bar E##. I would choose the book's solution over yours since it has one less AND operation.
 
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  • #3
tnich said:
Your result is equivalent to the solution in the book since ##\bar B \bar C D\bar E + \bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E = \bar B \bar C \bar E##. I would choose the book's solution over yours since it has one less AND operation.
You can not add ## \bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E## because you don't have it . Check again.
 
  • #4
momentum said:
You can not add ## \bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E## because you don't have it . Check again.
You must be looking at a different diagram than the one you posted. The one I see has ##1##s in the squares for ##B=C=D=E=0##. You don't seem to have any argument with the ## \bar B \bar C \bar D## term since you have it in your solution. But ## \bar B \bar C \bar D + \bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E = \bar B \bar C \bar D##, so you can add ##\bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E## to your solution to get an equivalent form.
 
Last edited:
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  • #5
I see it. It's circled even though it's enclosed in one of the groups of four probably to emphasize it.
 
  • #6
tnich said:
The one I see has ##1##s in the squares for ##B=C=D=E=0##.

I don't see it. Can you please circle it in different color in my diagram ?

tnich said:
But ## \bar B \bar C \bar D + \bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E = \bar B \bar C \bar D##

How ?
 
  • #7
Joshy said:
I see it. It's circled even though it's enclosed in one of the groups of four probably to emphasize it.
could you please mark in a different color in diagram . I don't see it.
 
  • #8
momentum said:
I don't see it. Can you please circle it in different color in my diagram ?
Circled in blue
Kdiagram.png
 
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  • #9
momentum said:
How ?
##\bar B \bar C \bar D+\bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E=\bar B \bar C \bar D(1+\bar E)=\bar B \bar C \bar D(1)=\bar B \bar C \bar D##
 
  • #10
tnich said:
##\bar B \bar C \bar D+\bar B \bar C \bar D\bar E=\bar B \bar C \bar D(1+\bar E)=\bar B \bar C \bar D(1)=\bar B \bar C \bar D##

Okay. got it ... that works.

But in diagram in general , we should highlight max 1's in K-Map. ...right ? we should not be using Single 1s ( blue circle which you marked) if the max 1s is available ...am I right ?

my Solution is also correct ...right ?
 
Last edited:
  • #11
momentum said:
my Solution is also correct ...right ?
Functionally, yes. Maximally efficient, no. Leans a little bit in the direction of using a shotgun to kill a fly. :wink:
 
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  • #12
momentum said:
But in diagram in general , we should highlight max 1's in K-Map. ...right ? we should not be using Single 1s ( blue circle which you marked) if the max 1s is available ...am I right ?
Yes, you are right, and that has been the point all along.
$$\begin{align}&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D + && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\bar CD\bar E\nonumber\\
=&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D+\bar B \bar C \bar D \bar E + && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\bar CD\bar E\nonumber\\
=&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D + && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\bar CD\bar E+\bar B \bar C \bar D \bar E\nonumber\\
=&\bar D \bar E+ \bar B \bar C \bar D + && \bar ACDE + BCD+\bar B\bar C\bar E\nonumber\end{align}$$
replaces ##\bar B\bar CD\bar E## with ##\bar B\bar C\bar E## giving a more efficient form.
 

Related to Trouble with K-Map Minimizing Function: Who is Correct?

1. What is a K-Map and how is it used in function minimizing?

A K-Map, or Karnaugh Map, is a graphical method used to simplify Boolean algebra expressions. It is used to minimize the number of terms in a Boolean function and reduce the complexity of logic circuits.

2. What is the difference between a prime implicant and an essential prime implicant?

A prime implicant is a product term that covers at least one minterm in a K-Map and cannot be further reduced. An essential prime implicant is a prime implicant that covers at least one minterm not covered by any other prime implicant.

3. Who is correct when there is a disagreement in the results of K-Map minimization?

In most cases, both parties are correct as there can be multiple valid ways to minimize a function using a K-Map. However, it is important to check for essential prime implicants and choose the solution with the fewest number of terms.

4. What are some common mistakes to avoid when using a K-Map for function minimization?

Some common mistakes include not properly grouping adjacent 1s, not considering the boundary conditions, and not checking for essential prime implicants. It is also important to double-check the final solution to ensure it is equivalent to the original function.

5. Can a K-Map be used to minimize functions with more than four variables?

Yes, a K-Map can be used for functions with up to six variables. However, as the number of variables increases, the K-Map becomes more complex and difficult to use. In these cases, other methods such as Quine-McCluskey algorithm or Boolean algebra may be more efficient.

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