- #1
kakarukeys
- 190
- 0
Given a homeomorphism from a subspace of [tex]R^n[/tex] onto a subspace of [tex]R^n[/tex]
if one of the subspaces is open in [tex]R^n[/tex], is the other one open in [tex]R^n[/tex] too?
I know it is trivial, but I can't see any solution.
if one of the subspaces is open in [tex]R^n[/tex], is the other one open in [tex]R^n[/tex] too?
I know it is trivial, but I can't see any solution.