- #1
Chris Miller
- 371
- 35
The probability P of k consecutive tails occurring in n coin tosses is 1 - (1 / F) where F is element n+2 in the k-step Fibonacci series divided by 2n. As n approaches infinity, P approaches 1 for any value of k.
Is the above statement true?
EDIT: sorry, mistyped heading question, can't edit. First 'n' should be 'k'
Is the above statement true?
EDIT: sorry, mistyped heading question, can't edit. First 'n' should be 'k'