- #1
TheBlackNinja
- 21
- 0
High guys,
I've always had problems with this law at the way it was explained.But now I've seen lewin explaining that way that bothers me: In terms of sensations.At 1:50
http://youtu.be/M_8w-dD4RBE
What I think is that we "feel" the pull only because we are made of multiple particles and the pull is not applied at them -exactly- the same way, because if it was the case their relative positions wouldn't change and there is no way we could feel the force.And for a single particle the notion doesn't even exist.So as long as the particles involved are all accelerated the same way, you can't tell if you're accelerating or not.
Is that right?
I've always had problems with this law at the way it was explained.But now I've seen lewin explaining that way that bothers me: In terms of sensations.At 1:50
http://youtu.be/M_8w-dD4RBE
What I think is that we "feel" the pull only because we are made of multiple particles and the pull is not applied at them -exactly- the same way, because if it was the case their relative positions wouldn't change and there is no way we could feel the force.And for a single particle the notion doesn't even exist.So as long as the particles involved are all accelerated the same way, you can't tell if you're accelerating or not.
Is that right?