- #1
MathNerd
I’ve been trying to find an analytic solution to the following ODE. I haven’t been successful and have come to the conclusion that an analytic solution probably doesn’t exist. I am not totally sure though and would be appreciative if you guys gave it a look.
a & b are arbitrary constants...
[tex]
\ddot{f} + b tan(b t) \dot{f} - a^2 cos^2(b t) f = 0
[/tex]
Thanks in advance...
a & b are arbitrary constants...
[tex]
\ddot{f} + b tan(b t) \dot{f} - a^2 cos^2(b t) f = 0
[/tex]
Thanks in advance...
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